Private pilot oral exam questions, with model answers.

Model answer

Section 61.103 lists it. I have to be at least 17, read, speak, write and understand English, and hold a student, sport or recreational certificate. I need the required training and endorsements, a passed knowledge test, the 61.109 experience, and a passed practical test. For Part 61 airplane single-engine training, that is at least 40 hours total, including at least 20 with an instructor and 10 solo, with the specified experience inside those totals. The knowledge test is good for 24 calendar months under 61.39. The medical comes from 61.23, not 61.103. I act as PIC on the checkride, so I need at least a third-class medical, or BasicMed if I have held an FAA medical at some point after July 14, 2006.

What the examiner listens for

• At least 17 (16 for glider or balloon); read, speak, write and understand English
• Hold a student, sport or recreational pilot certificate
• Training and endorsements, knowledge test, 61.109 experience, practical test
• Knowledge test good for 24 calendar months (61.39(a)(1)(i))
• 40 hours total: at least 20 dual and 10 solo, each with its own list (61.109(a))
• Medical from 61.23: third class, or BasicMed only if a medical was held after July 14, 2006

Reference 14 CFR 61.103, 61.109, 61.39, 61.23

Model answer

Stable air resists going up. A lifted parcel ends up cooler than the air around it and sinks back. That gives low stratus and fog, smooth air, and poor visibility, often under an inversion. Unstable air keeps rising, so I get cumulus, showers and turbulence, with better visibility between the clouds. Rising dry air cools at 3 degrees Celsius per thousand feet, and saturated air at 1.1 to 2.8. The standard atmosphere cools 2 degrees per thousand. In the cockpit, layers and smooth air mean stable. Heaped cloud and bumps mean unstable, and if those clouds keep growing, storms.

What the examiner listens for

• Stable: resists vertical movement; stratus, fog, poor visibility (PHAK pp. 12-12, 12-18)
• Unstable: cumulus, showers, turbulence (PHAK p. 12-18)
• Dry adiabatic 3 °C, moist 1.1–2.8 °C, standard 2 °C per 1,000 ft (PHAK p. 12-13)
• Inversions trap haze and smoke and cut visibility (PHAK p. 12-13)
• Cockpit cue: layers and smooth = stable; heaps and bumps = unstable

Reference PHAK pp. 12-12, 12-13, 12-18

Model answer

Six classes, A through G, and no F in the United States. Class A is IFR only, 18,000 MSL to FL600. Class B is the most demanding to enter — an ATC clearance, a radio, Mode C and ADS-B Out, and at least a private certificate or an endorsed student. Class C takes two-way communications established plus Mode C and ADS-B Out. Class D takes communications established and no equipment of its own. Class E is all the other controlled airspace. A VFR pilot needs no clearance or radio call for it, but at and above 10,000 MSL, except at or below 2,500 AGL, it takes Mode C and ADS-B Out. Class G is uncontrolled. If two overlap, 71.9 says the more restrictive one's rules apply, and it ranks Class A above Class B.

What the examiner listens for

• Six classes, A B C D E G, no F in the US; Class A is IFR only, 18,000 MSL to FL600
• Class B: ATC clearance, radio, Mode C and ADS-B Out, private certificate or endorsed student
• Class C: two-way communications established, Mode C and ADS-B Out
• Class D: two-way communications established, no equipment of its own
• Class E: controlled; no clearance or radio for VFR, but Mode C and ADS-B Out at and above 10,000 MSL (not at or below 2,500 AGL); Class G: uncontrolled
• 71.9: overlapping designations, the more restrictive rules apply; A outranks B

Reference AIM 3-2, 3-3; 14 CFR 71.9, 91.126–91.135

Model answer

91.7 says no one may operate a civil aircraft unless it is airworthy. As pilot in command I determine whether it is in condition for safe flight, and I discontinue the flight when unairworthy mechanical, electrical or structural conditions occur. So the preflight and run-up are a system-by-system check: controls free and correct, fuel sampled, at least five quarts of oil, mags within 150 and 50, no annunciators. 91.9 holds me to the POH's limitations. Not every inoperative item grounds the airplane, though; 91.213(d) sets out when I can fly without it (14 CFR 91.7, 91.9, 91.213(d)).

What the examiner listens for

• 91.7(a): no operation unless airworthy
• 91.7(b): PIC determines condition for safe flight and discontinues the flight if it becomes unairworthy
• Preflight and run-up check the airplane system by system
• 91.9: comply with the POH's operating limitations
• Inoperative equipment: 91.213(d)

Reference 14 CFR 91.7, 91.9, 91.213(d); POH Section 4 pp. 4-15, 4-16

Model answer

I start with the Chart Supplement, which the PHAK calls the most comprehensive information on a given airport, and it shows whether the field has an ATIS. For a nontowered field the CTAF is also on the instrument approach and departure charts, and any flight service station can give it to me. The sectional's data block shows the tower's primary frequency and marks the CTAF. If there's an ATIS, it may give the approach frequency for VFR arrivals. With no tower, flight service station or UNICOM, it's MULTICOM, 122.9. I set them before takeoff; the AFH's before-takeoff check has the avionics set with the appropriate frequencies.

What the examiner listens for

• Chart Supplement: 'the most comprehensive information on a given airport' (PHAK ch. 14); indicates ATIS airports (AIM 4-1-13a)
• CTAF also on instrument approach and departure charts, or from any FSS (AIM 4-1-9b.3)
• Sectional data block: control tower primary frequency; CTAF symbol (Chart User's Guide)
• ATIS may give the approach frequency for VFR arrivals (AIM 4-1-13b)
• No tower, FSS or UNICOM: MULTICOM 122.9 (AIM 4-1-9g.3)
• Frequencies set before takeoff, as part of the before-takeoff check (AFH 2-22)

Reference AIM 4-1-9, 4-1-13; PHAK ch. 14; FAA Chart User's Guide; AFH 2-22

Model answer

Six. Mandatory instruction signs are red with a white inscription: the entrance to a runway or critical area, or somewhere I'm prohibited from entering. Location signs tell me where I am. The taxiway and runway location signs are black with a yellow inscription and yellow border and no arrows; the runway boundary and ILS critical area boundary signs, which I see when leaving those areas, are yellow with a black inscription. Direction signs are yellow with black, naming the taxiways leading out of an intersection, with arrows for the turn. Destination signs are yellow with black and arrows to places like runways and terminals. Information signs, yellow with black too, cover things like frequencies and noise abatement. Distance remaining signs are black with a white number: thousands of feet of runway left (PHAK 14-15, 14-16; AIM 2-3-8 to 2-3-13).

What the examiner listens for

• Mandatory: red, white inscription; runway or critical-area entrance, or a prohibited area
• Location: taxiway and runway location signs black with yellow inscription and border; runway boundary and ILS critical area boundary signs yellow with black
• Direction: yellow, black inscription; the taxiways leading out of the intersection
• Destination: yellow, black inscription and arrows; runways, terminals and other areas
• Information: yellow, black inscription; frequencies, noise abatement, areas the tower cannot see
• Distance remaining: black, white number; thousands of feet of runway left

Reference PHAK (FAA-H-8083-25C) pp. 14-11, 14-15, 14-16; AIM 2-3-8a

Model answer

With my call sign: Runway 31, via Alpha, cross Runway 6, hold short of Runway 17. The AIM says always read back the runway assignment, any clearance to enter a runway and any hold short, and ATC has to get the hold-short readback. I may cross Runway 6 because I have an explicit crossing clearance, but I still scan its whole length and the finals first. At Runway 17 I stop with no part of the airplane past the solid lines. The Runway 31 assignment doesn't let me enter or cross 31. If anything is unclear, 91.123 says I ask right away.

What the examiner listens for

• Read back the runway assignment, any runway entry and any hold short, with the call sign (AIM 4-3-18a.9; AC 91-73B 7.f(4))
• ATC is required to obtain the hold-short readback (AIM 4-3-18a.7 NOTE)
• Explicit crossing clearance for Runway 6; scan the full length and the finals even when cleared (AIM 4-3-18a.5; PHAK 14-34)
• Stop with no part of the airplane past the first solid line (PHAK 14-8; AIM 2-3-5)
• A runway assignment does not authorize entering or crossing that runway (AIM 4-3-18a.6)
• Uncertain of a clearance: request clarification immediately (14 CFR 91.123(a))

Reference AIM 4-3-18, 2-3-5; PHAK 14-8, 14-34; AC 91-73B 7.f(4); 14 CFR 91.123(a)

Model answer

First the groundspeed. Eighteen nautical miles in eleven and a half minutes is about 94 knots, not the 108 I planned. The PHAK says once you have a groundspeed, work out a new arrival time and fuel, so every ETE after this checkpoint gets recomputed at 94, and since fuel flow stays about constant at a given true airspeed, more time means more fuel. Being right of course means the wind has more left component than forecast, so I turn left to regain the line and hold a heading further left. Then I check fuel. I don't trust one indication: I compare time flown times fuel flow with the gauges, and I plan to land before either one runs out.

What the examiner listens for

• Groundspeed from the timed leg: 18 NM in 11.5 min is about 94 kt (PHAK p. 16-11)
• New ETEs, arrival time and fuel from the new groundspeed (PHAK pp. 16-12, 16-35)
• Right of course: the wind is from the left more than planned; correct the heading left (PHAK p. 16-9)
• Cross-check fuel: time flown × fuel flow against the gauges
• Plan to be on the surface before the calculated fuel time runs out or the gauge reads low (PHAK p. 16-12)

Reference PHAK pp. 16-9, 16-11, 16-12, 16-21, 16-35

Model answer

I tune the frequency on the nav radio, or on the display or navigator in a glass panel, make sure the CDI or HSI is showing that VOR and not GPS, and identify it by its Morse code or the recorded voice ending in 'VOR'. Then I turn the course until the needle centers with a FROM: that's the radial I'm on, a line of position from the station. A second VOR's radial, or DME, makes it a fix. I stop if the ident is missing or it's sending T-E-S-T, or if the warning flag shows. A needle wobbling a few degrees in cruise may just be propeller RPM, so I try a slight RPM change first.

What the examiner listens for

• Tune the receiver; make sure the CDI or HSI shows the VOR, not GPS (PHAK pp. 16-23, 16-24)
• Identify by Morse code or recorded voice 'VOR'; never by FSS voice (AIM 1-1-3c)
• Center the needle with FROM: the radial you are on (PHAK pp. 16-23, 16-24)
• One radial is a line; a second radial or DME makes a fix (PHAK pp. 16-28, 16-34)
• No ident, T-E-S-T or a warning flag: don't use it (AIM 1-1-3c; PHAK pp. 16-23, 16-24)
• CDI roughness up to ±6° from propeller RPM; change RPM slightly (AIM 1-1-3e.2(a))

Reference AIM 1-1-3c, e.2(a); PHAK pp. 16-23 to 16-28, 16-34

Model answer

Weather: ceilings or visibility going below VFR or below the personal minimums I wrote down, because the PHAK treats VFR into IMC as a risk I mitigate with a diversion. Fuel: if the time flown passes what I calculated, or the gauges read low; the PHAK says be on the ground before either. The airplane: an engine problem that won't clear, or an abnormal engine indication, gets the POH/AFM's procedure, and where it sends me is the diversion. An alternator failure means shed nonessential loads at once and head for the nearest suitable airport; if I expect a complete loss of electrical power, I tell ATC and ask for vectors. In the 172S the LOW VOLTS checklist ends 'Land as soon as practical.' And me: the moment I'm doubtful about position, fuel or weather, the AIM says I'm in at least an urgency condition.

What the examiner listens for

• Weather below VFR or personal minimums; PHAK 16-34 VFR-into-IMC mitigated by diversion
• Fuel: be on the surface before planned time is exceeded or the gauge reads low (PHAK 16-12)
• Abnormal engine indications: follow the AFM/POH (AFH ch. 18)
• Alternator failure: shed non-essential loads immediately; if a complete loss of electrical power is expected, notify ATC and get vectors to the nearest suitable airport (AFH ch. 18)
• Doubt about position, fuel or weather: at least urgency (AIM 6-1-2a)

Reference PHAK pp. 16-12, 16-34; AFH ch. 18; AIM 6-1-2a

Model answer

Fuel first: a dry tank stops it, and the gauges or my fuel log are the cue; running a tank dry can also let air in and make a restart hard. Water or the wrong grade of fuel shows as power loss, and with the wrong grade, rising engine temperature. In a carbureted engine, carburetor ice shows as a slow RPM drop and then roughness, or a manifold pressure drop with a constant-speed prop. A rich mixture at altitude fouls the plugs and runs rough; too lean causes detonation. And oil: low pressure with rising temperature means the engine may be failing.

What the examiner listens for

• Fuel starvation: a dry tank; running dry can cause vapor lock and a hard restart (PHAK Ch. 7)
• Contamination and grade: water can freeze or stop the engine; wrong grade means power loss and higher temperature (PHAK Ch. 7)
• Carburetor ice: RPM drop then roughness (fixed pitch), manifold pressure drop (constant speed) (PHAK Ch. 7)
• Mixture: rich at altitude fouls the plugs; overly lean causes detonation (PHAK Ch. 7)
• Oil: pressure and temperature gauges are the cue; follow the POH for abnormal indications (AFH p. 18-16)

Reference FAA-H-8083-25C PHAK Ch. 7; FAA-H-8083-3C AFH p. 18-16

Model answer

The POH supplement for the installed ELT tells me where the transmitter and its remote switch are; in a 172S with the Artex ME406, the transmitter is in the tailcone and the remote switch is on the panel, normally in ARM. Before a forced landing I switch it on; the AIM says to actuate it if the installation permits. To know it's working, I look for its indicator light and, if it's safe to power a COM, I listen on 121.5 for the tone, then turn the radio off to save the battery. The AIM says my passengers should know how to do this too.

What the examiner listens for

• Find the ELT and its remote switch in the POH supplement for the installed unit
• Normally armed, so crash forces turn it on (AIM 6-2-4 a.2(e))
• Actuate it before a crash landing or ditching if the installation permits (AIM 6-3-2 c.2)
• Verify it transmits: the indicator, and 121.5 on a COM if safe (AIM 6-2-4 a.2(f))
• Passengers should know how to activate and verify it (AIM 6-2-4 a.2(f))

Reference AIM 6-2-4 a.2(e)–(f), 6-3-2 c.2; Cessna 172S POH Supplement 1 (example airplane)

Model answer

A discharge means more current is leaving the battery than is being replaced, so the alternator is probably off line and the battery is carrying the load. The AFH says most electrical failures are in the alternator or generator. If my POH allows a reset, I try it once. Then the goal is to make the battery last: shed every load I don't need, tell ATC, and land at the nearest suitable airport, planning a no-flap landing if the flaps are electric. In a glass panel the flight instruments depend on electrical power, so the standby instruments matter. In a six-pack, the vacuum gyros and pitot-static gauges keep working.

What the examiner listens for

• Ammeter minus: more current drawn from the battery than replaced; a warning light may show the discharge (PHAK Ch. 7)
• Most failures are in the alternator or generator; shed non-essential loads at once (AFH p. 18-13)
• Make the battery last; tell ATC; nearest suitable airport; no-flap landing if the flaps are electric (AFH pp. 18-13, 18-14)
• Glass panel: the displays need power, so the standby instruments are the fallback
• Six-pack: vacuum gyros and pitot-static instruments keep working; the turn coordinator is often electric (PHAK Ch. 8)

Reference FAA-H-8083-25C PHAK Chs. 7, 8; FAA-H-8083-3C AFH pp. 18-13, 18-14

Model answer

The cones sit in the center of the retina and give color and detail, but they need good light. The rods sit around the edge. They see in dim light, in shades of gray, and pick up movement. At night the rods do almost all the work. The fovea at the very center has no rods, so I have a night blind spot of about 5 to 10 degrees. If I stare at a dim light, it can fade away. So I look 5 to 10 degrees off center and keep my eyes moving, never more than 2 or 3 seconds on one spot. Full dark adaptation takes about 30 minutes, and bright light can undo it.

What the examiner listens for

• Cones: center, color and detail, good light; rods: periphery, gray scale, motion, dim light (AFH pp. 11-1, 11-2)
• At night, vision depends almost entirely on the rods (AFH p. 11-2)
• Night blind spot: no rods in the fovea, central 5 to 10 degrees (AFH p. 11-3)
• Look 5 to 10 degrees off center (PHAK p. 17-22); no stop longer than 2 to 3 seconds (p. 17-23)
• Dark adaptation about 30 minutes; a bright light can destroy it (PHAK p. 17-23; AIM 8-1-6 b.2)

Reference FAA-H-8083-3C AFH pp. 11-1 to 11-3; PHAK pp. 17-22, 17-23; AIM 8-1-6

Model answer

It's an approach over water or dark land where the runway lights are the only lights. With no cues around the runway, it can seem to slope up or down, and I'll feel higher than I am. The AIM and PHAK say the pilot who doesn't recognize it flies a lower approach, and the AFH says the worst case is landing short. So I use the VASI, PAPI or glide slope if there is one. If not, I fly the approach by the instruments, cross-checking the altimeter and VSI against my position. If I'm ever unsure of my altitude or position, I go around.

What the examiner listens for

• Over water or unlit terrain, runway lights the only light; few cues around the runway (AFH p. 11-5)
• Feels higher than you are, so you fly lower (AIM 8-1-5; PHAK p. 17-10)
• Worst case: landing short (AFH p. 11-5)
• Use VASI, PAPI or glide slope; otherwise the flight instruments (AFH pp. 11-5, 11-13)
• Any doubt about position or altitude: go around (AFH p. 11-5)

Reference FAA-H-8083-3C AFH pp. 11-5, 11-13; AIM 8-1-5; PHAK p. 17-10

Model answer

Three places. First, 91.205(c): everything on the day list, plus position lights, an anticollision light system, an adequate electrical source, and spare fuses. A landing light only if it's for hire. Second, the airplane's own list: its Kinds of Operations Equipment List, if it has one, in the POH. In a 172S, the VFR night column adds the display backlighting, the panel and standby instrument lights, the flood light, the nav lights and the strobes; the beacon and taxi light aren't required. Third, 91.209: position lights on from sunset to sunrise, and anticollision lights on unless I turn them off for safety.

What the examiner listens for

• 91.205(c): day items plus position lights, anticollision lights, landing light for hire, electrical source, spare fuses
• The airplane's KOEL, if it has one; its night column (AC 91-67A ¶1.8.9)
• Example 172S KOEL: panel, standby and flood lighting, NAV, strobes required; beacon and taxi light not
• 91.209(a): position lights sunset to sunrise; (b) anticollision lights on, PIC may turn them off for safety
• Whatever these require must be in operable condition (91.205(a))

Reference 14 CFR 91.205(a), (c); 91.209; AC 91-67A ¶1.8.9; Cessna 172S POH KOEL (example airplane)